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"My mother he hath slain; the tale is short, Either he willingly

did slay her willing, Or else with her will but against his own."

I mean then, is it really possible for a person to be unjustly

dealt with with his own consent, or must every case of being

unjustly dealt with be against the will of the sufferer as every

act of unjust dealing is voluntary?

And next, are cases of being unjustly dealt with to be ruled all

one way as every act of unjust dealing is voluntary? or may we

say that some cases are voluntary and some involuntary?

Similarly also as regards being justly dealt with: all just

acting is voluntary, so that it is fair to suppose that the being

dealt with unjustly or justly must be similarly opposed, as to

being either voluntary or involuntary.